Well, the title is not so explanatory, but what I mean is: I'm nearsighted and wear glasses with -2.0 in each eye, no astigmatism. A friend of mine is farsighted and wears glasses with +2.0 power.
What I was thinking is: knowing how lenses work, would this person see what I do if he wore his glasses (+2.0), as he states that everything far away is blurred with his (near-vision) glasses?
And, by seeing what I do, I mean to see with around the same amount of "blurriness" as I see without correction.
Added (1). Thank you, Theresa. Interesting answer. Now, just for curiosity (since now on this is no loger the case), someone who was 0.00 through the entire life and got presbyopia of +2.0 would still need +4.0 to see the same as I see? I mean, this one's focal point might be the same of always, the age problem just changed the accomodation, right?
Also, following this logic, in order to see what somenone with -3.0 sees, would I need +1.0?
Added (2). And, Footprintz, thanks for answering too. Yes, he is fourty-something.
>>> If someone wears the inverse of my prescription, will they see what I see?